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Barry/Capri, can you please help me understand the coefficent of RR versus the RR force?
To me it seems that we have a fixed weight (to a close approximation) of vehicle, so we would be putting a fixed load on a tire. I would also assume (and it may be a bad assumption) the same inflation pressures in each case. And for comparison we also need to assume the same construction, rubber compounds, etc. In that case, the lower RR force for narrower tires would seem to mean that those tires would coast farther.
Why is it the coefficient, which you have to multiply by the load, which actually shows you which tires would coast further?
-soD
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